# Limit of $L^p$ norm

Could someone help me prove that given a finite measure space $(X, \mathcal{M}, \sigma)$ and a measurable function $f:X\to\mathbb{R}$ in $L^\infty$ and some $L^q$, $\lim_{p\to\infty}\|f\|_p=\|f\|_\infty$? I don’t know where to start.

#### Solutions Collecting From Web of "Limit of $L^p$ norm"

Fix $\delta>0$ and let $S_\delta:=\{x,|f(x)|\geqslant \lVert f\rVert_\infty-\delta\}$ for $\delta<\lVert f\rVert_\infty$. We have
$$\lVert f\rVert_p\geqslant \left(\int_{S_\delta}(\lVert f\rVert_\infty-\delta)^pd\mu\right)^{1/p}=(\lVert f\rVert_\infty-\delta)\mu(S_\delta)^{1/p},$$
since $\mu(S_\delta)$ is finite and positive.
This gives
$$\liminf_{p\to +\infty}\lVert f\rVert_p\geqslant\lVert f\rVert_\infty.$$
As $|f(x)|\leqslant\lVert f\rVert_\infty$ for almost every $x$, we have for $p>q$, $$\lVert f\rVert_p\leqslant\left(\int_X|f(x)|^{p-q}|f(x)|^qd\mu\right)^{1/p}\leqslant \lVert f\rVert_\infty^{\frac{p-q}p}\lVert f\rVert_q^{q/p},$$
giving the reverse inequality.

Let $f:X\to \mathbb{R}$. Assume that $f$ is measurable, and that $\|f\|_p<\infty$ for all large $p$. Suppose for convenience that $f\geq 0$. (If not, just work with $f^*:=|f|$.) We define
$$\|f\|_{\infty}:=\sup \{r\in \mathbb{R}: \mu\left( \{x:|f(x)|\geq r\} \right)>0\}.$$

I claim without proof that $\|f\|_p < \infty$ for large $p$ implies that $\|f\|_\infty < \infty$.

If $\|f\|_{\infty}=0$, we can see that the proposition holds trivially. If $\|f\|_{\infty}\neq 0$, let $M:=\|f\|_{\infty}$.

Fix $\epsilon$ such that $0< \epsilon < M$. Define $D:=\{x:f(x)\geq M-\epsilon\}$. Observe that $\mu(D)>0$ by definition of $\|f\|_{\infty}$. Also, $\mu(D)<\infty$ since $f$ is integrable for all large $p$. Now we can establish $\liminf_{p\to\infty }\|f\|_p\geq M-\epsilon$ by
$$\left( \int_{X}f(x)^p dx \right)^{1/p} \geq \left( \int_D (M-\epsilon)^pdx \right)^{1/p} = (M-\epsilon)\mu(D)^{1/p} \xrightarrow{p\to\infty}(M-\epsilon)$$

Now we show $\limsup_{p\to\infty}\|f\|_{p} \leq M+\epsilon$. Let $\tilde{f}(x) := \dfrac{f(x)}{M+\epsilon}$. Observe that $0\leq \tilde{f}(x)\leq M/(M+\epsilon)<1$, and that
$$\left( \int_{X} f(x)^p dx \right)^{1/p} = (M+\epsilon)\left( \int_{X} \tilde{f}(x)^p dx \right)^{1/p}.$$

Now it suffices to show that $\int_X \tilde{f}(x)^p dx$ is bounded above by $1$ as $p\to \infty$, since then we have

$$\left( \int_{X} f(x)^p dx \right)^{1/p} = (M+\epsilon)\left( \int_{X} \tilde{f}(x)^p dx \right)^{1/p} \leq M+\epsilon.$$

But observe that
$$\int_{X} f(x)^{a+b} dx = \int_{X} f(x)^{a}f(x)^b dx$$
$$\leq \int_{X} f(x)^{a} \left(\frac{M}{M+\epsilon}\right) ^b dx = \left(\frac{M}{M+\epsilon}\right)^b \int_{X} f(x)^{a} dx.$$
Therefore $\int_{X} f(x)^{p} dx$ will eventually be less than one. This shows $\limsup_{p\to\infty}\|f\|_{p} \leq M+\epsilon$ and completes the proof.