What is ${\partial\over \partial x_i}(x_i !)$ where $x_i$ is a discrete variable? Do you consider $(x_i!)=(x_i)(x_i-1)…1$ and do product rule on each term, or something else? Thanks.

I know and understand the mean value theorem. But at the moment I don’t have the intuition to understand the generalized mean value theorem If $f$ and $g$ are continuous on the closed interval $[a,b]$ and differentiable on the open interval $(a,b)$, then there exists a point $c\in(a,b)$ where$$[f(b)-f(a)]g'(c)=[g(b)-g(a)]f'(c).$$If $g’$ is never zero on $(a,b)$, […]

As the title implies, It is seems that $e^x$ is the only function whoes derivative is the same as itself. thanks.

Of course, it is easy to see, that the integral (or the antiderivative) of $f(x) = 1/x$ is $\log(|x|)$ and of course for $\alpha\neq – 1$ the antiderivative of $f(x) = x^\alpha$ is $x^{\alpha+1}/(\alpha+1)$. I was wondering if there is an intuitive (probably geometric) explanation why the case $\alpha=-1$ is so different and why the […]

I’m looking for a way to prove $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^{2m+1}}=\frac{(-1)^m E_{2m}\pi^{2m+1}}{4^{m+1}(2m)!}$$ I know that $$\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)^{2m+1}}=\frac{1}{4^{2m+1}}\left(\zeta\left(2m+1,\frac14\right)-\zeta\left(2m+1,\frac34\right)\right)$$ so maybe I could simplify the above more?

Consider the curve $\frac{1}{x}$ where $x \geq 1$. Rotate this curve around the x-axis. One Dimension – Clearly this structure is infinitely long. Two Dimensions – Surface Area = $2\pi\int_∞^1\frac{1}{x}dx = 2\pi(\ln ∞ – \ln 1) = ∞$ Three Dimensions – Volume = $\pi\int_∞^1{x}^{-2}dx = \pi(-\frac{1}{∞} + \frac{1}{1}) = \pi$ So this structure has infinite […]

I plan to evaluate $$\int_0^{\pi/3} \ln^2\left(\frac{\sin x }{\sin (x+\pi/3)}\right)\, \mathrm{d}x$$ and I need a starting point for both real and complex methods. Thanks ! Sis.

This is a Putnam Problem that I have been trying to solve (on and off) for two years, but I have failed. I am in Calculus BC. This problem comes from the book “Calculus Eighth Edition by Larson, Hostetler, and Edwards”. This problem is at the end of the first section of the chapter 8 […]

Can anyone think of an intuitive explanation of the product rule? I’m not asking for a derivation. To me it seems like quite an un-untuitive result, as apposed to the chain-rule (which is ironically harder to derive).

Is there a geometric interpretation of Young’s inequality, $$ab \leq \frac{a^{p}}{p} + \frac{b^{q}}{q}$$ with $\dfrac{1}{p}+\dfrac{1}{q} = 1$? My attempt is to say that $ab$ could be the surface of a rectangle, and that we could also say that: $\dfrac{a^{p}}{p}=\displaystyle \int_{0}^{a}x^{p-1}dx$, but them I’m stuck.

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