# Showing ${L^{2}}()$ Is Contained in ${L^{1}}()$

I’m trying to show that ${L^{2}}([0,1])$ is contained in ${L^{1}}([0,1])$. This is what I have so far:

Since $f \in {L^{2}}([0,1])$, then we have that $(\int_0^1 |f|^2)^{\frac{1}{2}}<\infty$. Thus we have $\int_0^1 |f|^2=M<\infty$, making $|f|^2$ integrable over $[0,1]$. This means that we can write $\int_{A_1} |f|^2+\int_{A_2} |f|^2$, where $A_1=\lbrace x\in[0,1]||f|^2>|f|\rbrace$ and $A_2=\lbrace x\in[0,1]||f|^2\leq |f|\rbrace$. Thus we have that $\infty > M=\int_{A_1} |f|^2+\int_{A_2} |f|^2\geq \int_{A_1} |f|$. Thus $f$ is integrable on $A_1$, and since $x\in A_2$ implies $f(x)<1$, then $\int_{A_2}f$ is integrable as well, hence $\int_{A_1} |f|+\int_{A_2} |f|=\int_0^1 f$ is integrable.

#### Solutions Collecting From Web of "Showing ${L^{2}}()$ Is Contained in ${L^{1}}()$"

You should be proving that ${L^{2}}([0,1]) \subseteq {L^{1}}([0,1])$ instead.

Due to an earlier typo error in the title, there was some minor confusion as to the correctness of the OP’s proof, which is actually correct.

Let $f \in {L^{2}}([0,1])$. Define
$$A := \{ x \in [0,1] ~|~ |f(x)| \leq 1 \} \quad \text{and} \quad B := \{ x \in [0,1] ~|~ |f(x)| > 1 \}.$$
For each $x \in B$, we have $|f(x)| < |f(x)|^{2}$, so
$$\int_{B} |f|^{2} ~d{\mu} < \infty \Longrightarrow \int_{B} |f| ~d{\mu} < \infty.$$

Next, notice that $\displaystyle \int_{A} |f| ~d{\mu} < \infty$ because $|f|$ is bounded by the value $1$ on $A$, which has finite measure. As $\{ A,B \}$ partitions the interval $[0,1]$, we see that
$$\int_{[0,1]} |f| ~d{\mu} = \int_{A} |f| ~d{\mu} + \int_{B} |f| ~d{\mu} < \infty.$$
Therefore, $f \in {L^{1}}([0,1])$.

Conclusion: ${L^{2}}([0,1]) \subseteq {L^{1}}([0,1])$.

Here is a lemma that will be of great use to you in the future.

Lemma. Let $1 \leq p \leq q \leq \infty$ and $\mu(X) < \infty$. If $f \in L^q$, then $f \in L^p$ and $\|f\|_p \leq \mu(X)^{1/p-1/q}\|f\|_q$.

To prove it note that the case $p=1$ is trivial, and for $p>1$ note that $q/p$ and $q/(q-p)$ are Holder conjugates so that $\|f\|_p^p \leq \|f\|_{q/p}\|1\|_{(q-p)/q} = \|f\|_q^p \mu(X)^{(q-p)/q}.$

This of course implies $L^q(X) \subseteq L^p(X)$ when $\mu(X) < \infty$ and $p\leq q$.